Is 1/4 equivalent to 1/6

asked Nov 28, 2024 152k views

5 votes

7.9k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

2 votes

Nope,

You will have to Multiply it both but it wouldn’t equal the same.

Zeebonk answered Nov 29, 2024

8.6k points

5 votes

Answer: no

Step-by-step explanation: if you do cross multiply it would not come out as same number

9.0k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers