Luther killed his wife, Sloane, by striking her repeatedly in the head with a hammer. He
confessed to the police that he did this because he believed that she was possessed by the Devil.
Although Luther claimed that he loved Sloane very much, he nonetheless told the authorities that
he believed that only by killing Sloane could he free her soul from the clutches of evil. At trial
for the murder of Sloane, Luther's defense counsel, trying to establish an insanity defense, put an
expert witness on the stand, a psychiatrist, who testified that X was in a psychotic state when he
killed Sloane and that "Luther was acting on the basis of delusional ideas with homicidal
impulses. These impulses were related to a suppressed post-traumatic stress disorder resulting
from Luther's having been sexually abused as a preschool child. This precipitated a psychotic
rage and led to him killing Sloane with a hammer. A rational person would not have assumed
that his wife was possessed by the Devil. Luther was basically in an intense psychotic state,
acting without thought. This was not a rational person; it was a psychotic rage. There was little
thought given to his criminal actions." In rebuttal, the prosecution presented testimony by a
forensic psychiatrist who opined that "Luther was psychosis-free when he killed Sloane, but
there are two other possible explanations for his behavior: paranoia and schizophrenia. I am
confident that Luther knew exactly what he was doing when he beat her to death. In my opinion,
he would not have been able to do what he did to Sloane if he had been psychotic." Given this
competing expert testimony, what are Luther's chances of being found not guilty of murder by
reason of insanity in these circumstances?