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If f(x)= x² (x≠2), then lim f(x) =4? Can I think of this as ignoring the x≠2 rule?
x→2

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Answer: No, the statement "if f(x)= x² (x≠2), then lim f(x) =4" is not correct. The limit of a function is a value that the function approaches as the input (in this case, x) gets closer and closer to some specific number. In this case, the limit of f(x) as x approaches 2 would be 4, since f(x)=x² for all values of x other than 2. However, if you ignore the x≠2 restriction and consider all values of x, then the limit of f(x) as x approaches 2 would be undefined, since f(x)=4 for x=2.

Explanation:

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