In 1662, "partus sequitur ventrem" was passed and it meant that.

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asked Mar 27, 2024 178k views

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Aadil · Answer 1 · 2024-03-30T07:50:01+0000

Answer:in the matter of sex between free English men and “negro women,” the legal condition of the child should follow that of the mother.

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Dcmorse · Answer 2 · 2024-04-03T01:49:15+0000

Partus sequitur ventrem aimed to attach a legal materiality to the enslaved woman's womb that enslave women's children and nullified the latter's claims to freedom, even when the father was free.

In 1662, "partus sequitur ventrem" was passed and it meant that.

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