1 Answer

Mouhamed Ndiaye · Answer 1 · 2024-05-01T18:56:12+0000

Answer:

$m\angle D=50^\circ$

Explanation:

With the given marking, which implies that FD=FE, then the angles opposite these congruent sides must also be congruent. Since angle E is 50 degrees, then angle D should also be 50 degrees.

Another explanation is that the markings imply that the triangle is isosceles. Therefore, angle D should also be 50 degrees.

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