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3 votes
David says you can have an unlimited number of equivalent fractions to any given fraction. Is he right?

User Pkdkk
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yes, multiply the numerator and denominator by the same number again and again to keep getting different equivalent fractions.
User Calvin Ellington
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8.3k points
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Yes, David is correct.
We can test our hypothesis by setting up an experiment.
1 2 4 6 7
2 4 8 16 14
AND SO ON!
User Maersu
by
8.4k points

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