I’m confused, any help?

asked May 27, 2022 6.2k views

9 votes

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6 votes

D hope this helps your welcome

Dawana answered May 28, 2022

5.6k points

11 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Trust me its D because to equal f(x)--->Inf., you need to have x equal a negative

Celil answered Jun 1, 2022

by Celil

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