menu
QAmmunity.org
Login
Register
My account
Edit my Profile
Private messages
My favorites
Register
Ask a Question
Questions
Unanswered
Tags
Categories
Ask a Question
A noble woman educated her children. Why was a peasant woman less likely to teach her own children?
asked
Apr 18, 2016
62.7k
views
5
votes
A noble woman educated her children. Why was a peasant woman less likely to teach her own children?
History
high-school
Jeremy Gillick
asked
by
Jeremy Gillick
6.9k
points
answer
comment
share this
share
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Please
log in
or
register
to answer this question.
2
Answers
4
votes
Because some of the peasant womens are less educated and had lot of chores to do.
Gby
answered
Apr 19, 2016
by
Gby
7.2k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
5
votes
The peasant would be less educated herself and unable to teach her children. While a noble was probably rich or had a decent amount of money and was educated as a child therefore able to educate her children/child.
Petrelharp
answered
Apr 25, 2016
by
Petrelharp
7.5k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.
8.3m
questions
11.0m
answers
Other Questions
What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
What were the positive and negative effects of Egypt being imperialized by Britain.
Twitter
WhatsApp
Facebook
Reddit
LinkedIn
Email
Link Copied!
Copy
Search QAmmunity.org