Question

Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Answer 1

Yes

Explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

`=16/100=4/25`

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

`=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5`

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

`=40/100=2/5`

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

`=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5`

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16