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(π/6)*[√4] + (3!)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3) i dont know this it is confusing HELP!

2 Answers

2 votes
The answer is one
the reason is because
(π/6)*[√4] + (3!)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3) is one
User Asad Ali Choudhry
by
6.2k points
4 votes
special things are confusing

so

some basica rules

x^ (m)/(n)= \sqrt[n]{x^m}
and pemdas


so
parentahsees first
3!=3*2*1=6
now we have
(π/6)*[√4] + (6)^2 - (46,656)^(1/3)
exponents
6^2=36
(46,656)^(1/3)=∛46656=36

now we have
(π/6)*[√4] + 36-36
multiply
(π/6)*[√4]=
(pi √(4) )/(6) = (2pi)/(6)= (pi)/(3)

now we have

(pi)/(3)+36-36

(pi)/(3)+0

(pi)/(3)

the simplified expression is
(pi)/(3)
User Zam
by
6.9k points