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29 votes
29 votes
Baily has 4 and 1/2 pints of milk. she uses 2 and 1/2 cups of milk to make recipe A and 1 and 1/2 cups of milk to make recipe B. After making both recipes, how many pints of milk does Baily have? (these are 2 cups in 1 pint)

User Amit Shakya
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1 Answer

26 votes
26 votes

We know 2 cups = 1 pint

Let's convert the pints of milk Baily has to cups of milk.


4(1)/(2)*2=9\text{cups}

For Recipe A, she uses 2 1/2 cup

For Recipe B, she uses 1 1/2 cup

That's a total of:


2(1)/(2)+1(1)/(2)=4cups

So, she has remaining:

9 cups - 4 cups = 5 cups

We want this answer in pints. So, to go from cups to pints, we divide by 2, so:


\begin{gathered} 5\text{cups is}(5)/(2)\text{ pints} \\ or \\ 2(1)/(2)\text{ pints} \end{gathered}

Answer


2(1)/(2)\text{ pints}

User Hofshteyn
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