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Is the area between y = 1/x and y = 1/x^2 on the interval from x = 1 to finite or infinite?

Is the area between y = 1/x and y = 1/x^2 on the interval from x = 1 to finite or-example-1
User Caner
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Based on the given figure above, we can say that the area between y = 1/x and y = 1/x^2 on the interval from x = 1 is infinite. It is considered infinite because 1/x is infinite and integral 1/x2 is considered finite, and this makes the result infinite. Hope that this answer helps.
User Dshepherd
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