Register
Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42x-56y
160k views
5 votes
Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42x-56y

User Simusid
by
7.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes
No, because the Distributive Property shows that 40(2x-16y) = 80x-640y, which does not equal 42x-56y
User Khaja Md Sher E Alam
by
8.8k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Thorben
asked Aug 10, 2016 21.1k views
Is the expression 7 (6x-8y) equal to 42x-56y
Thorben asked Aug 10, 2016
by Thorben
8.1k points
2 answers
4 votes
21.1k views
User Hamid Heydarian
asked Nov 4, 2020 219k views
What expression is equivalent to 42x-56y
Hamid Heydarian asked Nov 4, 2020
by Hamid Heydarian
7.9k points
1 answer
4 votes
219k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
A bathtub is being filled with water. After 3 minutes 4/5 of the tub is full. Assuming the rate is constant, how much longer will it take to fill the tub?
i have a field 60m long and 110 wide going to be paved i ordered 660000000cm cubed of cement  how thick must the cement be to cover field
Link Copied!