Why was the growth of great empires (like those in Mesopotamia and Egypt) less likely to develop in ancient Greece?

asked Dec 3, 2017 208k views

1 vote

8.2k points

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

3 votes

reason is because they don't have same language and they had goods that was worthless to them or something like that

Mark Watney answered Dec 10, 2017

8.2k points

0 Comments

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers