29.6k views
1 vote
Write the given expression in terms of x and y only.
sin(sin^−1 (x) + cos^−1 (y))

User Dgvid
by
7.6k points

2 Answers

5 votes
we are given the expression sin (sin-1 (X) + cos-1 (y)). We use the associative property to distribute the sine function. sin (sin-1 (x)) is equal to x. cos-1 (y) is equal to beta, the other angle besides alpha. sin beta is also equal to x which means the simplified term is 2x. This makes sense because sin-1 x = cos-1 y 
User Bhavesh
by
8.7k points
4 votes

Answer:


sin(sin^(-1)(x) + cos^(-1)(y)) = x y + √(1 - y^2) √(1- x^2)

Explanation:

Given


sin(sin^(-1)(x) + cos^(-1)(y))

Let's define


\alpha = sin^(-1)(x)


\beta = cos^(-1)(y)

Replacing


sin(\alpha + \beta)


sin(\alpha) cos(\beta) + sin(\beta) cos(\alpha)

But


sin(\alpha) = sin(sin^(-1)(x))=x


cos(\beta) = cos(cos^(-1)(y))=y

From trigonometric identity


sin^2(\beta) + cos^2(\beta) = 1


sin(\beta) = √(1 - cos^2(\beta)) = √(1 - y^2)


sin^2(\alpha) + cos^2(\alpha) = 1


cos(\alpha) = √(1 - sin^2(\alpha)) = √(1- x^2)

Replacing


sin(sin^(-1)(x) + cos^-1 (y)) = x y + √(1 - y^2) √(1- x^2)

User ACarter
by
8.7k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories