94.0k views
5 votes
which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function? a. the graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test. b. f(x) is a one-to-one function. c. the graph of the inverse of f(x) passes the horizontal line test. d. f(x) is not a function.

User Nagyl
by
8.5k points

2 Answers

1 vote
B- f(x) is a one-to-one function
User Zachary Anker
by
7.6k points
6 votes
f(x) is a one-to-one function.
User Luthien
by
8.2k points