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Is 4n-2 equivalent to 2(n-1)
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Is 4n-2 equivalent to 2(n-1)

User Adam Lockhart
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2 Answers

11 votes
No, when you do 4n-2 it equals to 2(2n-1) not 2(n-1)
User Ryan Nelson
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11 votes

Answer:

no

Explanation:

For example: 4(2)-2 and 2(2-1)

6 is not equal to 2

User Jim Heising
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5.6k points
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