Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Let f of x by equal to 2/x and g of x be equal to 2/x. The function f(g(x)) means that f is of g(x) which is 2/x. Therefore we substitute 2/x into f of g(x) as x:

We then know that a fraction divided by a fraction can be changed to a fraction multiplied by the inverse of the fraction that its divided by, therefore:

Therefore f(g(x))=x
We can do the same for g(f(x)):


Therefore f and g are inverses