Indefinite pronouns do not require specific antecedents

asked Aug 3, 2017 101k views

5 votes

7.2k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

2 votes

this is true, because some do not need to have specific antecedents while others may have some of the same ones

7.8k points

4 votes

the answer is true Because Indefinite pronouns have no known or specific antecedent

Clam answered Aug 8, 2017

by Clam

7.3k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.8m questions

11.4m answers