Some problems with the Question is that both Egyptian and Phoenician are Semitic languages, so "Semitic" is not a language but a language group.
But let's go by the order in wchitch the script was borrowed, which roughly represents the order of when the languages died out:
First, Egyptian hieroglyphs were devised
At the same time, the Protosinaitic script was created (that could correspond to "Semitic".
Then the Phoenicians borrowed the script,
and from them the Greeks
and from them The Romans.