Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. a. True b. False

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asked Dec 13, 2017 120k views

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Christopher Corley · Answer 1 · 2017-12-17T14:49:19+0000

The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "False." Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. The statement that is shown above is not true to Shakespeare's 1.

Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. a. True b. False

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