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Please help me help help me please help help me out

Please help me help help me please help help me out-example-1
User Richard Beier
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1 Answer

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22 votes

According to the definition of the inverse function, given a function f


\begin{gathered} f(f^(-1)(x))=x \\ f^(-1)(f(x))=x \end{gathered}

Therefore, regardless of function f(x), f(f^-1(x))=x, we do not even need to know the analytic form of f^-1(x). The answer is x.

User Evengard
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