Please help me help help me please help help me out

Richard Beier asked Mar 19, 2023

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Richard Beier asked Mar 19, 2023

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22 votes

According to the definition of the inverse function, given a function f

$\begin{gathered} f(f^(-1)(x))=x \\ f^(-1)(f(x))=x \end{gathered}$

Therefore, regardless of function f(x), f(f^-1(x))=x, we do not even need to know the analytic form of f^-1(x). The answer is x.

Evengard answered Mar 24, 2023

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