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In humans, having unattached earlobes is the result of a dominant gene, and having attached earlobes is a recessive trait. If a woman with attached earlobes has a child with a man who is homozygous for unattached earlobes, which of the following best describes how the child's earlobes would most likely appear?

User Dickbarba
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Homozygous: this means that the man has two genes for unattached earlobes, so whichever of these gene genes is transmitted  to the child, it will be unattached. Since having unattached earlobes is a result of a dominant gene, one such gene is enough and the child will definitely have an unattached earlobe.
User Vinesh Vini
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