we have


we know that
the slope of f(x) is

the slope of g(x) is


so
g(x) is steeper than f(x)
the y-intercept of f(x) is

the y-intercept of g(x) is


so
g(x) has a lower y-intercept
therefore
the answer is
The line of g(x) is steeper and has a lower y-intercept