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Why do "opposites" have more in common than "non-opposites"?

a.They share a continuum.
b.Non-opposites are the same thing.
c.Aristotle's doctrine of the mean states it.
d.The above statement is not valid: opposites have nothing in common with each other.

User JGL
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2 Answers

1 vote
D possibly, i'm cunfuddled.
User Sam Mullin
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4 votes
A. They share a continuum.
User Rathnakara S
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