Question

In part III of the statute, Jefferson concedes that no law, not even this one, is “irrevocable”; he then declares that infringing on the principles in the statute would violate natural law. Why might Jefferson have mentioned the revocability of human law? What does he gain by doing this? What might he lose? Answers should be at least 150 words.

Answer 1

Thomas Jefferson believed that no law was irrevocable, including natural human rights. Because of this though, but also his ideals about human rights, he says that human law can be revoked so long as that law is infringing on those rights. In doing this he would have gained many likes and become very popular in the United States, but Jefferson also would have lost people's good opinion in England. He also might have mentioned this in his Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom because he was arguing for freedom to decide his religion, which is one of the natural rights that we have as humans, and those were being infringed upon by the state of Virginia.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 2

Jefferson is one of the best spokes person in America so he extends the meaning of revocability of human law as a natural right. He gains trust from the American people by saying this at this time. He might not lose anything but if there is any it would be the British won't trust him.