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Prove that if an converges to a nonzero constant then 1/an is bounded

User Zagloo
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1 Answer

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Assume
\frac1{a_n} is not bounded, i.e. there are no
u,\ell for which
\ell\le\frac1{a_n}\le u for all
n.

Now,
a_n\to k\\eq0 is to say that for any
\varepsilon>0, we can find a large enough
N such that
|a_n-k|<\varepsilon whenever
n\ge N. Simultaneously, this means that
a_n is bounded.

Let's suppose without loss of generality that
a_n\\eq0 for any
n. (Note that if
a_n=0 for some finite number of values of
n, we can simply remove them from consideration.)

So we have


|a_n-k|=\left|a_n\left(1-\frac k{a_n}\right)\right|=|a_n|\left|1-\frac k{a_n}\right|<\varepsilon

Because
a_n is bounded, we know there is some
\alpha such that
|a_n|\le\alpha for all
n. Now,


|a_n|\left|1-\frac k{a_n}\right|\le\alpha\left|1-\frac k{a_n}\right|<\varepsilon

\left|1-\frac k{a_n}\right|<\frac\varepsilon\alpha

-\frac\varepsilon\alpha<1-\frac k{a_n}<\frac\varepsilon\alpha

-1-\frac\varepsilon\alpha<-\frac k{a_n}<-1+\frac\varepsilon\alpha

1-\frac\varepsilon\alpha<\frac k{a_n}<1+\frac\varepsilon\alpha

\frac1k-\frac\varepsilon{\alpha k}<\frac 1{a_n}<\frac1k+\frac\varepsilon{\alpha k}

But we initially assumed that
\frac1{a_n} is unbounded, so the above is impossible. Thus
\frac1{a_n} must be bounded.
User Drjeep
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