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If a ≤m b and b is regular, does that imply that a is a regular language? why or why not?
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If a ≤m b and b is regular, does that imply that a is a regular language? why or why not?

User Sachin Arote
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Answer: No. For example, define the languages A = 0 n1 n and B = {1}, both over the alphabet Σ = {0, 1}. Define the function f : Σ∗ → Σ∗ as
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