194k views
1 vote
Why is it impossible for a function to have fewer values in its domain than in its range?

User Cortopy
by
8.5k points

1 Answer

5 votes
For each value of x (domain), correspond one and only one value of y (range).
Reciprocally, for at least one value of y, correspond one value of x.
If in the range, there is no corresponding value for x, that means the function doesn't exist in this very value of y, which is impossible
User Luke Melia
by
7.6k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories