Question

If the statement "If it is midnight, then the sun is not shining" is assumed to be true, is its reverse, "If the sun is not shining, then it is midnight," also always true?

A. No
B. Yes

Answer 1

The correct answer is no

Answer 2

No

Explanation:

This is a case of affirming the consequent fallacy. This formal fallacy has the form:

P -> Q

Q

-------

P

The name affirming the consequent derives from using the consequent, Q, to conclude the antecedent P.

In this case, P is "it is midnight" and Q is "the sun is not shining", and the statement is false because the cause of the sun is not be shining could be, for example, an eclipse, not because is midnight