Question

if we decrease the price of an objet by 20% and then by 20% also . after two reductions ,is the price of object decreased by 40%?

Answer 1

x - starting price


`100\%x-20\%x=x-0.2x`


`x(1-0.2)^2=(0.8)^2x=0.64x` Price reductions


`x-0.64x=0.36x=36\%x`

36% <-- Answer

Answer 2

No suppose you have 100 rs and you gave 20% of it to someone that is 20 rupees then you are left with 80 rupees .then again someone ask you for 20% of the avaliable money so you will give 20% of 80 rs that is 16 rupees. Together you gave 36 rs and it is not 40% of 100