227k views
3 votes
For what values of p makes the integral converge?

For what values of p makes the integral converge?-example-1

1 Answer

1 vote

\displaystyle\int_1^\infty x^(-p)\,\mathrm dx=(x^(1-p))/(1-p)\bigg|_(x=1)^(x\to\infty)

Note that this assume
p\\eq1; if that were the case, we'd end up with a logarithm as the antiderivative, and it's easy to show that in that case the integral diverges.


=\displaystyle\lim_(x\to\infty)(x^(1-p))/(1-p)-\frac1{1-p}

We have two cases remaining. If
p<1, then the numerator is of degree larger than 0, and as
x\to\infty we have
x^(1-p)\to\infty.

If
p>1, then the degree of the numerator will be negative, which would mean the numerator approaches 0 as
x\to\infty, leaving us with just
\frac1{1-p}. So the integral only converges for
p>1.
User Amir Hajiha
by
7.4k points