Yes or No? The integral of a to b f(x)dx is the area bounded by the graph of f, the x-axis and the lines x=a and x=b.

Question

asked May 23, 2018 53.3k views

1 Answer

Blusky · Answer 1 · 2018-05-29T13:04:00+0000

No, in general this is not the case. It's only true if
f(x)>0

for

. Otherwise the definite integral gives the *signed* area, which could be negative or even 0.