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Why do you think certain parts of the South had large numbers of slaves while other parts did not?
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Why do you think certain parts of the South had large numbers of slaves while other parts did not?

User Vrghost
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It could be because some parts of the south had more farms, while others did not. Some areas could be more populated or filled with richer people (which would allow the rich to buy and own slaves)
User Marcelus Trojahn
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