Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent?

asked Sep 23, 2018 28.8k views

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4 votes

It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not.

Dusk answered Sep 25, 2018

by Dusk

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4 votes

yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.

Iowa answered Sep 28, 2018

by Iowa

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