For a certain spinner, if we expect to win a prize five times in forty tries, what is the theoretical probability of winning a prize?

asked May 28, 2018 172k views

2 votes

8.1k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

4 votes

The answer is 1/8 because if you divide both numbers by 5 it would be simplified into 1/

Zigdon answered May 30, 2018

8.0k points

1 vote

1/8 because 5 goes in to 40 8 times and if you divide it times 5 it equal 1

Rboy answered Jun 3, 2018

by Rboy

8.7k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers