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A widow's peak is a V-shaped area of the hairline in the center of the forehead. The allele for having a widow's peak is dominant to the allele for not having a widow's peak.

If two parents do not have widow's peaks, what is the probability that their child will have a widow's peak?

User YSgPjx
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2 Answers

6 votes

Answer:

0%

Step-by-step explanation:

Having a widow's peak is a dominant trait. So, if two parents do not have widow's peaks, this means neither parent has an allele for a widow's peak. They are both homozygous recessive. Since they do not have an allele for widow's peak, they cannot pass an allele for a widow's peak to their child. Their child will also be homozygous recessive, and will not have a widow's peak.

User Finrod
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i believe there is a 0% chance of their child having a widows peak because them not having one means they carry the recessive genes meaning there's no dominant trait being passed down
User Sashaank
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