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19 votes
19 votes
Are the expressions equivalent 8 ÷ 2 and 2 ÷ 8 & why

User TheNextman
by
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1 Answer

27 votes
27 votes

Firstly, lets look at the result of the two expressions

8 / 2 = 4

and

2 / 8 = 1 / 4

looking at the results, they are different, therefore they are not equivalent

The answer is No.

And the reason is that both expresions give different results

User Lachezar
by
3.0k points