216k views
3 votes
Find the linear approximation of f(x)=lnx at x=1 and use it to estimate ln(1.38).

User Bneil
by
7.9k points

1 Answer

2 votes

\bf f(x)=y=ln(x)\qquad \begin{cases} x=1\\ y=ln(1)\to y=0 \end{cases}\\\\ -----------------------------\\\\ \left. \cfrac{dy}{dx}=\cfrac{1}{x} \right|_(x=1)\implies 1\impliedby m \\\\\\ \textit{now, we know that } \begin{cases} x=1\\ y=0\\ m=1 \end{cases}\implies y-0=1(x-1)\implies y=x-1

now, you're asked to use it when ln(1.38), which is just another way of saying x = 1.38

so set x = 1.38 and see what "y" is
User Satish Bellapu
by
8.8k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories