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The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation of the function?

A) y=cos^-1 x
B) y=cot^-1 x
C) y=sin^-1 x
D) y=tan^-1 x

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer: C)
y=sin^-1 x

Explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point
(1,(\pi)/(2)),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function
y=cos^(-1) x

If x = 1


y=cos^(-1)1=0

Thus,
(1,(\pi)/(2)) is not satisfying function
y=cos^(-1) x,

The graph of
y=cos^(-1) x is not passing through the point
(1,(\pi)/(2))

For the function
y=cot^(-1)x

If x = 1


y=cot^(-1)1=(\pi)/(4)

Thus,
(1,(\pi)/(2)) is not satisfying function
y=cot^(-1)x,

The graph of
y=cot^(-1)x is not passing through the point
(1,(\pi)/(2))

For the function
y=sin^(-1) x

If x = 1


y=sin^(-1)1=(\pi)/(2)

Thus,
(1,(\pi)/(2)) is satisfying function
y=sin^(-1) x,

The graph of
y=sin^(-1) x is passing through the point
(1,(\pi)/(2)).

For the function
y=tan^(-1)x

If x = 1


y=tan^(-1)1=(\pi)/(4)

Thus,
(1,(\pi)/(2)) is not satisfying function
y=cos^(-1) x,

The graph of
y=tan^(-1) x is not passing through the point
(1,(\pi)/(2)).

Hence, Option C is correct.

User Daniel Schlaug
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