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Adam Smith's term the "Invisible Hand" means that free markets will self-correct. What does this imply? A. Governments should not set prices B. Governments should set prices C. Governments should set prices
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Adam Smith's term the "Invisible Hand" means that free markets will self-correct. What does this imply?

A. Governments should not set prices
B. Governments should set prices
C. Governments should set prices only during times of national emergency.

User Vijayant
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I would think C would make the most sense.
User Snicker
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