Is (x+1)^2 equivalent to x^2 + 1? explain

GenericUser asked Mar 28, 2023

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GenericUser asked Mar 28, 2023

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17 votes

Answer:

No.

Explanation:

(x+1)^2=(x+1)(x+1)=x^2+x+x+1=x^2+2x+1

This is different from x^2+1.

Thus, they are not equivalent.

Matheus Lima answered Apr 3, 2023

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