The correct answer is: "no association".
The data does not provide evidence of any association.
In total there are 50 men and 75 women in the sample. Exactly the same proportion of men and women show preference towards the high top shoes:
- Proportion of men who show preference for high top shoes: (nº of men that prefer high top shoes/ total nº of men)*100= (40/50)*100=80%
- Proportion of women who show preference for high top shoes: (nº of women that prefer hight top shoes/ total nº of women)*100= (60/75)*100=80%
Pertaining to one or the other gender group does not make it more or less likely that the person prefers a specific type of shoes. Therefore, there is no association.