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4 votes
F(x) = cos(x)

f'(x) = -sin(x)
f'(π/2) = -sin(π/2)
f'(π/2) = -1

My answer to this question is A. -1, but I am posting it here because several students got B. +1 as their answer. Can anyone confirm the answer as A?

F(x) = cos(x) f'(x) = -sin(x) f'(π/2) = -sin(π/2) f'(π/2) = -1 My answer to this question-example-1
User Giesburts
by
6.3k points

2 Answers

2 votes
Your answer would be -1.

User Isaacparrot
by
7.0k points
5 votes
Your working out is correct. The appropriate answer is ...
A. -1

For confirmation, check a graph of cos(x) at π/2. It has negative slope at that point.
F(x) = cos(x) f'(x) = -sin(x) f'(π/2) = -sin(π/2) f'(π/2) = -1 My answer to this question-example-1
User Pete Duncanson
by
6.8k points
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