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Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

Hey can you please help me posted picture of question-example-1
User Apet
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The statement is true.

Domain of the function is Range of its Inverse.
Range of the function is Domain of its Inverse.

This is because the function and its inverse are a reflection about the line x= y, as a result the x values get translated to y values.
User Nick Meldrum
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We have the following function:
y = f (x)
The domain of the function is:
values of x for which it is defined.
The range is:
values of and for which it is defined.
The inverse is:
x = f (y)
The domain of the function is:
values of and for which it is defined.
Answer:
TRUE
option A
User Niels Billen
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