Register

Why did the western government use the ideology of appeasement before ww2 broke out?

Why did the western government use the ideology of appeasement before ww2 broke out?
92.0k views
4 votes
Why did the western government use the ideology of appeasement before ww2 broke out?

User Ryan Chou
by
7.8k points

2 Answers

3 votes

The United Kingdom's government tried to deter war by any means necessary. Hope this helps!

User Jeremysprofile
by
7.9k points
1 vote
sympathy towards Germany
Recover from WW1 (Economic and labour)
Great depression
User Interkot
by
8.4k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Seth Ladd
asked Oct 20, 2018 135k views
List reasons why Appeasement, and the actions of European Countries, were the cause of WW2.
Seth Ladd asked Oct 20, 2018
by Seth Ladd
8.6k points
1 answer
4 votes
135k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
Link Copied!