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Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

Hey can you please help me posted picture of question
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3 votes
Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

Hey can you please help me posted picture of question-example-1
User Malik Brahimi
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1 Answer

6 votes
The answer is YES.
Suppose that we are factoring like this:

f(x)=g(x)h(x)
Then if "a" is a zero of g, meaning
g(a)=0 then

f(a)=g(a)h(a)=0*h(a)=0 too.
User Mohamed Farrag
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9.3k points
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