menu
Qammunity
Login
Register
My account
Edit my Profile
Private messages
My favorites
Ask a Question
Questions
Unanswered
Tags
Categories
Ask a Question
Why is the term “The Dark Ages” sometimes replaced with the “Early Middle Ages”?
asked
Mar 6, 2019
37.9k
views
5
votes
Why is the term “The Dark Ages” sometimes replaced with the “Early Middle Ages”?
Social Studies
college
Raman
asked
by
Raman
8.5k
points
answer
comment
share this
share
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Please
log in
or
register
to answer this question.
1
Answer
7
votes
the dark ages is more of an appropriate term due to the black plauge, the crusades, and the fact that Europe was in total upheaval, along with Asia being conquered by the mongols
Nazish
answered
Mar 11, 2019
by
Nazish
8.6k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
← Prev Question
Next Question →
No related questions found
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.
9.4m
questions
12.2m
answers
Other Questions
Why did people immigrate to the United States in the late 1800s?
In the peaceful period of the Middle Kingdom, what area of culture thrived?
Why did the slogan Peace Land and Bread appeal to the Russian people?
Why wasn't New England's land well-suited for farming
Which city was located nearest the nile river delta
Twitter
WhatsApp
Facebook
Reddit
LinkedIn
Email
Link Copied!
Copy
Search Qammunity