119k views
9 votes
Is f = 2 a solution to the inequality below?

f<1
yes
no



HELP PLS IM FAILINGGG

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

No because if you plug in f with 2 it is saying 2 is less than 1 which is not true so it would be

No

User Guy Carmin
by
8.5k points
5 votes

Answer: no

Step-by-step explanation: 2 is not less than 1

User Techexpert
by
7.9k points

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